Update to Airline Transport Pilot Test June 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep 2012 ASA-TP ...

164 Pages·2012·35.94 MB·English

Update to Airline Transport Pilot Test June 2012
Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep 2012 ASA-TP-ATP-12
With the following changes, ASA’s Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep 2012 provides complete preparation for the FAA
Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Dispatcher Knowledge Exams.
About the Test Changes
The FAA exams are “closed tests” which means the exact database of questions is not available to the public. The
question and answer choices in this book provide the largest sampling of representative FAA questions available
and they are derived from history and experience with the FAA testing process. You might see similar although not
exactly the same questions on your official FAA exam. Answer stems may be rearranged from the A, B, C order you
see in this book. Therefore, be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer
while studying, rather than memorize the A, B, C answer. You may be asked a question that has unfamiliar wording;
studying and understanding the information in this book and the associated reference documents will give you the
tools to answer all types of questions with confidence.
We invite your feedback. After you take your official FAA exam, let us know how you did. Were you prepared? Did
the ASA products meet your needs and exceed your expectations? We want to continue to improve these products
to ensure applicants are prepared, and become safe aviators. Send feedback to: [email protected]
Two addendums to the Computer Testing Supplement (CT-8080-7C) were introduced. It is important to familiarize
yourself with these new figures; the Addendum (A and B) will be included along with the full CT-80080-7C at the
testing center. You should anticipate questions referencing these new figures. The new questions referencing
Figures 254-388 are for validation purpose now; they will not count towards your score. The figures from the new
Addendums are included at the end of this file starting on page 9.
The next FAA test change is expected in October 2012.
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
1-13 8214 [B] The question and answer stems are changed to read:
8214. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required
annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in
A— November 2010.
B— December 2011.
C— January 2011.
1-32 9782 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9782. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report
A— accident and incident data annually.
B— noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway.
C— declared distances for each runway.
All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report 12 consecutive calendar months for each accident or incident
in movement areas and safety areas involving an air carrier aircraft and/or ground vehicle. (PLT078) —
14 CFR §139.301
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 1
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
1-73 9807 [B] A new question is added to read:
135, RTC
9807. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft
A— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
operator’s manual available.
B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM
or RFM available.
C— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM
or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).
Per 14 CFR §21.5, with each airplane or rotorcraft not type certificated with an Airplane or Rotorcraft
Flight Manual and having no flight time before March 1, 1979, the holder of a type certificate (including
amended or supplemental type certificates) or the licensee of a type certificate must make available to
the owner at the time of delivery of the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
(PLT373) — 14 CFR §21.5
2-15 9783 [C] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9783. When should transponders be activated on the ground during taxiing?
A— Only when ATC specifically requests that the transponder to be activated.
B— Any time the airport is operating under IFR.
C— All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders
should be transmitting “on” with altitude reporting continuously while moving on the airport surface if so
equipped. (PLT149) — AIM ¶4-1-20
2-15 9784 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should
A— operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi.
B— operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing.
C— be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.
If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders
should be transmitting “on” with altitude reporting continuously while moving on the airport surface if so
equipped. (PLT149) — AIM ¶4-1-20
2-20 8147 [A] The question is changed to read:
8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?
2-37 9794 [C] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L
approach. Assuming you have received the training, you
A— should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach.
B— can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums.
C— must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.
Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called a radius-to-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have
the capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible for knowing ahead of time whether or not they can
conduct an RNP approach with an arc. (PLT354) — AIM ¶5-4-18
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 2
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
2-37 9795 [A] A new question is added to read:
RTC
9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS
RWY 16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums
will be
A— 11,360' MDA and 3/4 mi.
B— 11,360' MDA and 1-1/4 mi.
C— 11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi.
Helicopters flying conventional (non-copter) SIAP’s may reduce the visibility minima to not less than one
half the published Category A landing visibility minima, or 1/4 statute mile visibility/1200 RVR, whichever
is greater unless the procedure is annotated with “Visibility Reduction by Helicopters NA.” (PLT354) —
AIM ¶10-1-2
2-37 9796 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9796. You arrive at the initial fix for the LPV approach into XYZ. The preflight briefer issued you an
unreliable advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signals and full GPS
service is available. You
A— know you can fly the approach down to LPV minimums.
B— cannot use that approach because of the advisory from FSS.
C— must revert to another approach system such as VOR.
Upon commencing an approach at locations with a “WAAS UNRELIABLE” NOTAM, if the WAAS avionics
indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the
approach using the displayed level of service. (PLT354) — AIM ¶1-1-20
2-49 9785 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9785. THL is the acronym for
A— Takeoff hold lights.
B— Taxi holding lights.
C— Terminal holding lights.
The Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) system is composed of in-pavement, unidirectional fixtures in a double
longitudinal row aligned either side of the runway centerline lighting. Fixtures are focused toward the
arrival end of the runway at the “position and hold” point, and they extend for 1,500 feet in front of the
holding aircraft. Illuminated red lights provide a signal, to an aircraft in position for takeoff or rolling,
indicating that it is unsafe to takeoff because the runway is occupied or about to be occupied by another
aircraft or ground vehicle. Two aircraft, or a surface vehicle and an aircraft, are required for the lights to
illuminate. The departing aircraft must be in position for takeoff or beginning takeoff roll. Another aircraft or
a surface vehicle must be on or about to cross the runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-6
2-49 9786 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9786. REL is the acronym for
A— Runway exit lights.
B— Runway entrance lights.
C— Ramp entry lights.
The Runway Entrance Lights (REL) system is composed of flush mounted, in-pavement, unidirectional
fixtures that are parallel to and focused along the taxiway centerline and directed toward the pilot at the
hold line. A specific array of REL lights include the first light at the hold line followed by a series of evenly
spaced lights to the runway edge; and one additional light at the runway centerline in line with the last two
lights before the runway edge. When activated, these red lights indicate that there is high-speed traffic on
the runway or there is an aircraft on final approach within the activation area. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-6
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 3
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
2-49 9787 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9787. (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as
A— squares or rectangles around “HS” and a number.
B— circles or polygons around “HS” and a number.
C— triangles or blocks filled with “HS” and a number.
Runway hotspots (some FAA Regions refer to them as high alert areas) are locations on particular
airports that historically have hazardous intersections. Hotspots are depicted on some airport charts as
circled areas. (PLT149) — FAA-H-8261-1
2-49 9798 [C] Add a new question to read:
ALL
9798. When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you
A— can taxi past this point at your own risk.
B— must hold short until “cleared” to taxi onto or past the runway.
C— may not cross the line until ATC allows you to “enter” or “cross” by instruction.
This question will likely include an onscreen image depicting runway hold position markings. These
markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when approaching a runway. ATC will not use the
word “cleared” in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-5, 4-3-18
2-49 9799 [A] Add a new question to read:
ALL
9799. The sign shown is an example of
A— a mandatory instruction sign.
B— runway heading notification signage.
C— an airport directional sign.
This question will likely include an onscreen image depicting a runway hold position sign. This is a
mandatory instruction sign, used to hold an aircraft on a taxiway located in the approach or departure
area for a runway so the aircraft does not interfere with operations on that runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-8
3-5 9808 [B] Add a new question to read:
ALL
9808. The stall speed of an airplane
A— is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration.
B— is affected by weight, and bank angle.
C— is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co-efficient.
Airplanes stall at the same angle of attack regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, etc. The
stall speed of the aircraft will be affected by weight, bank angle, and other factors since the product of
dynamic pressure, wing area, and lift coefficient must produce the required lift. (PLT477) — ANA
3-15 9803 [B] Add a new question to read:
121, 135, DSP
9803. Swept wings causes a significant
A— increase in effectiveness of flaps.
B— reduction in effectiveness of flaps.
C— flap actuation reliability issue.
Thin airfoil sections with sweepback impose distinct limitations on the effectiveness of flaps. (PLT266) —
ANA
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 4
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
3-18 8332 [B] The answer stem B is changed to read:
B— Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed.
3-18 9793 [B] A new question is added to read:
121, 135, DSP
9793. Upon landing, spoilers
A— decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B— function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C— should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.
Spoilers should be deployed immediately after touchdown because they are most effective at high speed.
The spoilers increase wheel loading by as much as 200 percent in the landing flap configuration. This
increases the tire ground friction force making the maximum tire braking and cornering forces available.
(PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3A
4-8 9781 [A] A new question is added to read:
RTC
9781. Ground resonance occurs when
A— a fully articulated rotor system is unbalanced.
B— a semi-rigid rotor system is out of balance.
C— a pilot lands with over inflated tires.
Ground resonance is an aerodynamic phenomenon associated with fully articulated rotor systems. It
develops when the rotor blades move out of phase with each other and cause the rotor disc to become
unbalanced. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
4-8 9800 [B] A new question is added to read:
RTC
9800. A medium or higher frequency vibration mainly present in the anti-torque pedals is
A— usually traceable to engine cooling fan assembly.
B— probably caused by the tail rotor.
C— to be expected and accepted as normal.
Medium-frequency vibrations are a result of trouble with the tail rotor in most helicopters. Improper
rigging, imbalance, defective blades, or bad bearings in the tail rotor are all sources of these vibrations. If
the vibration occurs only during turns, the trouble may be caused by insufficient tail rotor flapping action.
(PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21
4-12 9797 [C] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9797. You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff.
Your airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V of 142 to
2
safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to
takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort from
your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.)
A— 1,738 feet.
B— 2,178 feet.
C— 3,601 feet.
At a ground speed of 129 knots, assuming it takes 10 seconds to takeoff, the distance required from the
decision point would be calculated with an E6B by placing 129 knots on the A scale over the “36” index
on the B scale. The distance required is read on the A scale opposite of 10 seconds on the B scale.
(PLT011) — E6B
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 5
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
4-12 9801 [A] Add a new question to read:
121, 135, DSP
9801. One typical takeoff error is
A— delayed rotation, which may extend the climb distance.
B— premature rotation, which may increase takeoff distance.
C— extended rotation, which may degrade acceleration.
In training it is common for the pilot to overshoot V and then overshoot V because the pilot not flying will
R 2
call for rotation at, or just past V . The reaction of the pilot flying is to visually verify V and then rotate.
R R
The airplane then leaves the ground at or above V . The excess airspeed may be of little concern on a
2
normal takeoff, but a delayed rotation can be critical when runway length or obstacle clearance is limited.
(PLT134) — FAA-H-8083-3
4-12 9802 [C] Add a new question to read:
121, 135, DSP
9802. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a
A— 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
B— 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed.
C— 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
An excessive airspeed at takeoff may improve the initial rate of climb and “feel” of the airplane but
will produce an undesirable increase in takeoff distance. Assuming that the acceleration is essentially
unaffected, the takeoff distance varies as the square of the takeoff velocity. Thus, a 10% increase excess
airspeed would increase the takeoff distance 21%. (PLT134) — ANA
4-33 9791 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9791. Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?
A— 250 feet.
B— 500 feet.
C— 1,000 feet.
On final approach, at a constant airspeed, the glidepath angle and rate of descent is controlled with pitch
attitude and elevator. The optimum glidepath angle is 2.5° to 3° whether or not an electronic glidepath
reference is being used. On visual approaches, pilots may have a tendency to make flat approaches.
A flat approach, however, will increase landing distance and should be avoided. For example, an
approach angle of 2° instead of a recommended 3° will add 500 feet to landing distance. (PLT170) —
FAA-H-8083-3A
4-33 9792 [C] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9792. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over V would add approximately how many feet to the dry
REF
landing distance?
A— 800 feet.
B— 1,700 feet.
C— 2,800 feet.
Excess approach speed carried through the threshold window and onto the runway will increase the
minimum stopping distance required by 20–30 feet per knot of excess speed for a dry runway. Worse
yet, the excess speed will increase the chances of an extended flare, which will increase the distance to
touchdown by approximately 250 feet for each excess knot in speed. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3A
4-59 8122 [A] The answer stems are changed to read:
A— 5,460 feet.
B— 9,100 feet.
C— 6,279 feet.
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 6
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
6-7 9780 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9780. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A— 200 knots.
B— 230 knots.
C— 250 knots.
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying Class B airspace at a speed of more than
200 knots. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117
6-26 9788 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9788. As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are
A— cleared to runway.
B— hold short of or “cross.”
C— taxi to and “expedite.”
When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the
point to taxi to, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances
if the taxi route will cross a runway. (PLT149) — AIM ¶4-3-18
Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC will not use the word “cleared” in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi.
Answer (C) is incorrect because “expedite” is not as critical as being told to hold short or cross.
6-26 9789 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9789. You received these ATC taxi instructions: “Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway
25L”. Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route
A— requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.
B— involves transiting HS 4.
C— requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.
When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any
hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. (PLT149) —
AIM ¶4-3-18
6-26 9790 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9790. As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242),
you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your
pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L,
then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you
A— exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.
B— exited onto Taxiway G.
C— exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
The very wide pavement and taxiway D signs on both sides of the pavement indicate you are now on
runway 25R in the HS1 and HS2 region. (PLT149) — AIM ¶4-3-18
7-15 9804 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9804. The crew monitoring function is essential,
A— particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues.
B— particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT.
C— during RNAV departures in class B airspace.
Effective monitoring and cross-checking can be the last line of defense that prevents an accident
because detecting an error or unsafe situation may break the chain of events leading to an accident. This
monitoring function is always essential, and particularly so during approach and landing when controlled
flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents are most common. (PLT104) — AC 120-71A
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 7
Page Question Correct
Number Number Answer Explanation
7-15 9805 [B] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9805. CRM training refers to
A— the two components of flight safety and resource management, combined with mentor feedback.
B— the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and
continual reinforcement.
C— the five components of initial indoctrination awareness, communication principles, recurrent practice
and feedback, coordination drills, and continual reinforcement.
The critical components of effective crew resource management (CRM) training include initial
indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement. (PLT104) —
AC120-51
7-15 9806 [A] A new question is added to read:
ALL
9806. In evaluating error management, one
A— should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
B— may include error evaluation that should have been prevented.
C— must mark errors as disqualifying.
It is certainly desirable to prevent as many errors as possible, but since they cannot all be prevented,
detection and recovery from errors should be addressed in training. Error management (error prevention,
detection, and recovery) should be considered in the evaluation of pilots, as well as the fact that since not
all errors can be prevented, it is important that errors be managed properly. (PLT104) — AC120-51
8-34 9696 [C] The answer stem B is changed (resulting in an answer change) to read:
B— be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the taxi to the runway.
8-48 9295 [B] The explanation is changed to read:
For FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through 199 knots, subtract 50 from the wind direction
code and add 100 to the speed code. The forecast of 750649 decodes as a wind of 250° (75 – 50 = 25) at
106 knots (100 + 06 = 106) with a temperature of –49°C (temperatures above FL240 are always negative).
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 8
Addendum
July 2011
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 9
11069
HOT SPOTS
An "airport surface hot spot" is a location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or
runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots/drivers is necessary.
A "hot spot" is a runway safety related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations.
Typically it is a complex or confusing taxiway/taxiway or taxiway/runway intersection. The area of increased risk has
either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents, due to a variety of causes, such as but not
limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lighting, situational awareness, and training. Hot spots
are depicted on airport diagrams as open circles or polygons designated as "HS 1", "HS 2", etc. and tabulated in the list
below with a brief description of each hot spot. Hot spots will remain charted on airport diagrams until such time the
increased risk has been reduced or eliminated.
CITY/AIRPORT HOT SPOT DESCRIPTION*
CARLSBAD, CA
MC CLELLAN-PALOMAR (CRQ) HS 1 Large Jets may obscure twr visibility of small aircraft.
CHINO, CA
CHINO (CNO) HS 1 Twy D close proximity to Rwy 08L-26R.
HS 2 Twy L close proximity to Rwy 03-21.
HAWTHORNE, CA
JACK NORTHROP FIELD/
HAWTHORNE MUNI (HHR) HS 1 Rwy 25 run-up area.
LONG BEACH, CA
LONG BEACH (DAUGHERTY
1 FLD) (LGB) HS 1 Rwy 30 and Rwy 07L-25R, Twy A and Twy D. 1
0 1
M HS 2 Rwy 12-30 and Rwy 07L-25R, Twy B and Twy K. 20
A HS 3 Rwy 07R-25L, Twy B. R
R P
2 HS 4 Rwy 07R-25L and Rwy 12-30, Twy J and Twy D. A
011 to 07 A HHHSSS 567 RRRwwwyyy 131642RR-3- 0a3 n4cdLro ,R ssswo uye tv0he7wrRye -so2tt 5hraLem.r rpw, yT.wy F and Twy B. 2011 to 07
PLOS ANGELES, CA R
R A
2 LOS ANGELES INTL (LAX) HS 1 Twy R not visible from the control twr. M
01 0
1 1
PALM SPRINGS, CA
PALM SPRINGS INTL (PSP) HS 1 Twy C mistaken for Rwy 13R-31L or Rwy 13L-31R.
HS 2 Int of Twy B and Twy C.
HS 3 Twy B and Rwy 31R.
HS 4 Twy C and Twy J.
RIVERSIDE, CA
RIVERSIDE MUNI (RAL) HS 1 Rwy 27, Twy C.
HS 2 ATC non-visibility area.
SAN DIEGO, CA
MONTGOMERY FLD (MYF) HS 1 Rwy 10R-28L, Twy G and Twy H.
HS 2 Rwy 28R and Rwy 28L, Twys G.
HS 3 Rwy 28R and Rwy 28L, Twys F.
SANTA ANA, CA
JOHN WAYNE ARPT-ORANGE
COUNTY (SNA) HS 1 Rwy 19L and Rwy 19R, Twy L and Twy K.
HS 2 Rwy 19L and Rwy 19R, Twy H.
HS 3 Twy A,Twy H, and Twy C.
(SEE CONTINUATION PAGE FOR MORE LISTINGS)
11069
Figure 241—Hot Spots.
FAA-CT-8080-7C
© ASA June 2012 2012 Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep Update Page 10