Solved Paper of UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2001 Exam

95 Pages·2017·1.8 MB·English

Solved Paper of UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2001 Exam

Q1 In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(b) Through Parliamentary Committees
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs

Correct Answer is (b) Through Parliamentary Committees

Functions of Parliamentary Committees
Parliamentary committees can range over all the functions that the legislature itself performs, with the
exception of determining the formation of the Government. They perform functions which Houses of
Parliament are not as well-fitted to perform, such as finding out facts of a case or issue, examining
witnesses, sifting evidence and drawing up reasoned conclusions.

Accountability
Committees provide an increased ability for the Parliament to scrutinise government policy and
expenditure. Committees are frequently appointed to parallel the ministerial or departmental structure
adopted by the Executive. Each committee has a responsibility to provide oversight of government
agencies within specific portfolios.

Legislation
Committees can be an important part of the legislative process. Examination by a committee can allow
public input into the legislative process.

Representation / Education of Members
Committees enable the Parliament to be taken to the people, and enable evidence to be gathered from
expert groups or individuals. They enable direct contact between the public and representative groups
of Members of Parliament and a flow of information to Members. They facilitate an increased level of
collegiality between members from different political parties who may not otherwise have the
opportunity to work with one another.

The accountability functions of parliamentary committees include their ability:

to conduct inquiries;
to compel the attendance of persons and presentation of documents; and
to make reports and recommendations to Parliament.
Committees are usually empowered to compel the attendance of individuals and the presentation of
documents. The defiance of an order of a parliamentary committee or the provision of misleading
evidence may result in charges of contempt of the House.

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Q2 Who among the following organised the famous Chittagong armoury raid ?
(a) Laxmi Sehgal
(b) Surya Sen
(c) Batukeshwar Datta
(d) J.M. Sengupta

Correct Answer is (b) Surya Sen

The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to
raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of
British India (now in Bangladesh) by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen.

Q3 Consider the decadal Census data given below:
Decadal Population (in millions)
Year - Population
1961 - 10.7
1971 - 14.3
1981 - 16.2
1991 - 18.9
The above data refer to which one of the ‘Population by Religion’ Groups ?
(a) Sikhs
(b) Jains
(c) Christians
(d) Buddhists

Correct Answer is (a) Sikhs

Christians - 24,080,016

Sikhs - 19,215,730

Buddhists - 7,955,207

Q4 Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial Sector Reforms ?
(a) Abid Hussain Committee
(b) Bhagwati Committee
(c) Chelliah Committee
(d) Narasimham Committee

Correct Answer is (d) Narasimham Committee

Narsimham Committee:Financial System
Abid Hussain Committee:Development Of Capital Markets
Bhagwati Committee:Unemployment
Bhagwati Committee:Public Welfare
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Raja Chelliah Committee:Tax Reforms

Q5 In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja Temple located ?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Bijapur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shravanabelagola

Correct Answer is (a) Bhubaneswar

Lingaraja Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the oldest temples in Bhubaneswar,
the capital of the East Indian state of Odisha. The temple is the most prominent landmark of
Bhubaneswar city and one of the major tourist attractions of the state.

Q6 A London branch of the All-India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of
(a) Agha Khan
(b) Ameer Ali
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) M.A. Jinnah

Correct Answer is (b) Ameer Ali

Syed Ameer Ali Order of the Star of India (1849 – 1928) was an Indian/British Indian jurist hailing from
the state of Oudh from where his father moved and settled down at Orissa. He was a prominent political
leader, and author of a number of influential books on Muslim history and the modern development of
Islam, who is credited for his contributions to the Law of India, particularly Muslim Personal Law, as well
as the development of political philosophy for Muslims, during the British Raj. He was a signatory to the
1906 Petition to the Viceroy and was thus a founding-member of the All India Muslim League.

Syed Ameer Ali established the London Muslim League in 1908. This organisation was an independent
body and not a branch of All India Muslim League. In 1909, he became the first Indian to sit as a member
of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council on which he would serve till his death in 1928. On
appointment to the Privy Council he became entitled to be addressed as The Right Honourable.
In 1910, he established the first mosque in London.

Q7
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The above map is the Union Territory of
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Pondicherry

Correct Answer is (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Q8 Identify the correct order of the processes of soil-erosion from the following:
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion

Correct Answer is (a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion

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Rainfall, and the surface runoff which may result from rainfall, produces four main types of soil erosion:
splash erosion, sheet erosion, rill erosion, and gully erosion. Splash erosion is generally seen as the first
and least severe stage in the soil erosion process, which is followed by sheet erosion, then rill erosion
and finally gully erosion (the most severe of the four).

Q9 The new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released by the Government of India is with
reference to the base prices of
(a) 1981-82
(b) 1990-91
(c) 1993-94
(d) 1994-95

None of the option is valid now.

The new series of Wholesale Price Index(WPI) with base 2011-12 is effective from April 2017.

Q10 The chess player Alexi Shirov represents
(a) Albania
(b) Kazhakstan
(c) Russia
(d) Spain

Correct Answer is (d) Spain

Alexei Shirov is a Latvian and Spanish chess grandmaster. He was ranked number two in the world in
1994.

Q11 Consider the following organisations :
I. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration
II. Heavy Water Board
III. Indian Rare Earths Limited
IV. Uranium Corporation of India
Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy ?
(a) I only
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

Correct Answe is (d) I, II, III and IV

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) (IAST: Parama?u Urja Vibhaga) is a department directly under
the Prime Minister of India with headquarters in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India. DAE has been engaged in
the development of nuclear power technology, applications of radiation technologies in the fields of
agriculture, medicine, industry and basic research. DAE comprises five research centres, three industrial
organisations, five public sector undertakings and three service organisations. It has under its aegis two
boards for promoting and funding extramural research in nuclear and allied fields, mathematics and a
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national institute (deemed university). It also supports eight institutes of international repute engaged in
research in basic sciences, astronomy, astrophysics, cancer research and education. It also has in its fold
an educational society that provides educational facilities for children of DAE employees.

Organisation
Apex Board
Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), Mumbai, Maharashtra
Regulatory Board and Organisation
Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), Mumbai, Maharashtra is given some regulation powers by AEC.
Research & Development Sector
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Mumbai, following Research institutions affiliated to BARC
Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), Hyderabad
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology, Indore
Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC), Kolkata
India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO)
Public Sector
Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL), Hyderabad
Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), Mumbai
Uranium Corporation of India, Singhbhum
Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL), Mumbai, Maharashtra
Bharatiya Nabhkiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI), Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
Industrial Organisations
Heavy Water Board (HWB), Mumbai
Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), Hyderabad
Board of Radiation & Isotope Technology (BRIT), Mumbai
Service Organizations
Directorate of Construction, Services and Estate Management (DAE) (DCSEM), Mumbai
Directorate of Purchase and Stores (DAE) (DPS), Mumbai
General Services Organisation (DAE) (GSO), Kalpakkam
Universities
Homi Bhabha National Institute, Mumbai
Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai
Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Hyderabad

Q12 Who among the following, was the President of the All-India States’ Peoples’ Conference in 1939
?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sheikh Abdullah
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Correct Answer is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

The All India States Peoples' Conference (AISPC) was a conglomeration of political movements in the
princely states of the British Raj. The first session of the organisation was held in Bombay in December
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1927. The Conference eventually got affiliated to the Indian National Congress and Jawaharlal Nehru
became its president in 1939. The Conference dissolved itself on 25 April 1948, all its constituents
merging into the Congress.

Q13 Consider the following statements about the minorities in India :
I. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians,
Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
II. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
III. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
IV. The Constitution of India recognises and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) II and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

Correct Answer is (a) II and III

The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Five religious communities, viz; Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Buddhists and Zoroastrians (Parsis) have been notified as minority communities by the Union
Government. Further vide notification detail 27th Jan 2014, Jains have also been notified as minority
community.

According to the 2011 Census of India, there are 57,264 Parsis in India. According to the National
Commission for Minorities, there are a "variety of causes that are responsible for this steady decline in
the population of the community", the most significant of which were childlessness and migration.
Demographic trends project that by the year 2020 the Parsis will number only 23,000. The Parsis will
then cease to be called a community and will be labeled a 'tribe'. .
One-fifth of the decrease in population is attributed to migration. A slower birthrate than deathrate
accounts for the rest: as of 2001, Parsis over the age of 60 make up for 31% of the community. Only
4.7% of the Parsi community are under 6 years of age, which translates to 7 births per year per 1000
individuals (Roy & Unisa 2004, p. 14). Concerns have been raised in recent years over the rapidly
declining population of the Parsi community in India

Q14 The temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station are given below:

Average Temperature : 12.8 °C
Average Rainfall : 54.9 cm per annum
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Identify the region having the above climatic pattern from amongst the following :
(a) Mediterranean region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Steppe region
(d) N.W. European region

Correct Answer is (d) N.W. European region

Temperature of West European Climate:

The temperatures, in the west European climate are affected by marine influences, warm ocean
cur rents and prevailing winds and air masses. In fact, the moderating effects of sea bring down the
difference between summer and winter seasons considerably. This climate is characterized by cool
summer and mild winters. Average temperature during summer season ranges between 15°C and 21°C.

Thus, the summer months are characterized by negative thermal anomaly i.e., the coastal regions in the
marine west coast climate record relatively lower temperature during summer season than the average
temperature for their latitudes. There is very negligible variation in the spatial distri bution of
temperature during summer season as it is indicated by mean July temperature of the following stations
= 17°C at Seattle (USA), 14.4°C at Bergen (Norway), 15.6°C at Dublin (Ireland), and 19°C at Paris (France).

Precipitation of West European Climate:

Marine coast climate or West European type of climate is basically humid climate and is characterized by
abundant and uniformly distributed precipitation throughout the year but winter maximum is the
charac teristic feature of coastal locations while interior loca tions record summer maximum. Inspite of
abundant precipitation all the year round there is much spatial variation in its amount.

Generally, precipitation de creases from the coasts towards interior locations and from north to south
along the coast. The regional distribution of precipitation is highly controlled by topographic factor. The
areas of low reliefs receive relatively low precipitation. For example, the north western European
lowland in the absence of any effec tive relief barrier receives mean annual precipitation ranging
between 50 cm and 75 cm.

Q15 The theme of the World Development Report, 2001 is
(a) From Plan to Market
(b) Knowledge for Development
(c) Attacking Poverty
(d) The State in the Changing World

Correct Answer is (c) Attacking Poverty

World Development Report 2000/2001 : Attacking Poverty

This report focuses on the dimensions of poverty, and how to create a better world, free of poverty. The
analysis explores the nature, and evolution of poverty, and its causes, to present a framework for action.
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Q16 In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control over its local
bodies ?
(a) Citizen’s grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters

Correct Answer is (d) Personnel matters

Although the 74th Amendment of the Constitution has granted sufficient autonomy to urban local
institutions and these have been accorded constitutional status, these are not completely free from
governmental control. The urban local government institutions work within the limits prescribed by the
State municipal Act which creates and governs them.

1. Legislative Control:

Urban Local bodies are set up by the laws passed by the legislature. Government can bring changes in
their organisation, powers and functions through a law passed by the legislature.

2. Financial Control:

Government undertakes the audit of the accounts of urban local bodies from time to time for checking
irregularities committed by these institutions while spending money. For raising loans from the financial
institutions. Municipal Councils have to seek the prior approval of the government.

3. Control through Government Officials:

Executive Officers of urban local bodies are government officials and the government exercises its
control over these bodies through these officials. Executive Officer and the Commissioner of Municipal
Corporation are the key instruments of governmental control over the urban local bodies. The Director
Urban Local Bodies also performs such a role.

4. Power to dismiss the Urban Local Institutions:

Under 74th amendment to the Constitution, these institutions have been given a stable 5 years tenure.
However, even then, if in the opinion of the government, an institution is not competent to perform its
duties or persistently makes default in the performance of duties, the government can dismiss it even
before the expiry of its term.

5. Administrative Control:

(i) The Government can seek any report, record or information from the Municipal councils and
corporations,

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(ii) The government can appoint any officer of its own to scrutinize and examine the work done by a
Municipal Corporation Council,

(iii) The sanction in respect of the bye-laws passed by a Municipal Corporation/Council has to be
obtained from the government.

Thus, Indian Political system has within it a well-organised and well-functioning systems of rural and
urban local government. These grass root level local government institutions serve as instruments for
providing political education and training to the people of India as well as these act as very useful means
for securing the socio-economic development of Indian villages and cities.

No doubt their working has not been fully successful in securing the desired goals, nevertheless, they
have the potential to develop and become stronger and efficient organs of local development with local
resources, local efforts and through local representatives.

The Constitution 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have made a bold attempt to ensure their continuity,
stability, representativeness and autonomy with a view to enable them function as valuable systems of
self-governance.

Q17 Who amongst the following Englishmen, first translated Bhagavad-Gita into English ?
(a) William Jones
(b) Charles Wilkins
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) John Marshall

Correct Answer is (a) William Jones

Sir Charles Wilkins, KH, FRS (1749 – 13 May 1836), was an English typographer and Orientalist, and
founding member of The Asiatic Society. He is notable as the first translator of Bhagavad Gita into
English, and as the creator, alongside Panchanan Karmakar, of the first Bengali typeface.

Q18 Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India :
I. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State.
III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
IV. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) IV only

Correct Answer is (d) IV only

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